A 55-year-old woman asks why her iron RDA drops from 18 mg to 8 mg after menopause. Using physiological reasoning, choose the best explanation that justifies this change.

• A. The drop is arbitrary and unrelated to physiology; it reflects historical dietary patterns rather than actual changes in iron loss or requirement.
• B. Menopause causes immediate and complete cessation of iron absorption from food, so intake must be reduced to prevent deficiency because absorption no longer occurs.
• C. After menopause metabolic rate doubles, increasing iron demand dramatically, which is why RDA is reduced to encourage lower iron intake to avoid excess metabolic strain on the liver.
• D. Menopause eliminates monthly menstrual blood loss, substantially reducing iron losses; therefore, the RDA drops to 8 mg/day to reflect lower ongoing iron turnover and minimize iron overload risks.

Answer: (D)