Which of the following can lead to pneumonia?

a. Viruses

b. Bacteria

c. Fungi

d. All of the above

Select the FALSE statement:

a. Typical pneumonia can be community acquired.

b. Streptococcus pneumoniae is one cause of typical pneumonia.

c. Viruses are the only cause of atypical pneumonia.

d. Atypical pneumonia is not usually characterized by consolidation.

Rapid diagnosis and treatment of streptococcal pharyngitis (strep throat) are important mainly because

a. streptococcal pharyngitis is painful.

b. streptococcal pharyngitis is highly contagious.

c. failure to treat streptococcal pharyngitis can compromise the efficiency of the DTaP vaccine.

d. streptococcal pharyngitis can cause certain autoimmune complications.

e. not treating streptococcal pharyngitis leads to antibiotic resistance.

The __________ vaccine is a childhood vaccine to protect against tetanus, diphtheria, and pertussis; in contrast, the __________ vaccine is a booster shot recommended for adolescents and adults to protect against tetanus, diphtheria, and pertussis.

List the three stages of pertussis, and provide some general characteristics of each stage.

Conjunctivitis is caused by the following agent types (select ALL that apply):

a. bacteria.

b. viruses.

c. protozoa.

d. fungi.

e. helminths.

Which best describes conjunctivitis (select ALL that apply)?

a. Itchy eyes

b. Scarred cornea

c. Red eyes

d. Inverted eyelashes

e. Scarred conjunctiva

Select the false statement about trachoma:

a. The causative agent is bacterial.

b. It is the leading cause of infectious blindness in the United States.

c. It is transmitted by unhygienic items, such as flies, fingers, and fomites.

d. Uncomplicated cases can be resolved with antibiotics.

e. Severe cases require surgery.

Your diabetic patient has a foot wound that has developed into serious necrosis and the recommended treatment has been sessions in the hyperbaric oxygen chamber. You are explaining to him what has contributed to this condition, including the causative agent, which is:

a. Bacillus anthracis.

b. Clostridium perfringens.

c. Corynebacteria diphtheriae.

d. Streptococcus pyogenes.

e. Pseudomonas aeroginosa.

A frantic mother comes into your clinic because her two-year-old child has had a very high fever for two days now, with mild diarrhea and coldlike symptoms. As you consider the differential list, which is the most likely causative agent if the fever breaks and is replaced with a rash by tomorrow?

a. Human parvovirus B19

b. Hand, foot, and mouth disease

c. Roseola

d. Rubella

e. Measles

Your patient is reminiscing about her childhood diseases while reviewing her medical history. She claims she had a really bad case of rubella (German measles) when she was a child and that she was very sick. You think she is confusing it with rubeola (measles) because:

a. measles can cause congenital rubella syndrome.

b. German measles causes a mild rash and is not likely to make a patient very sick.

c. the largest concern is for secondary infections like pneumonia.

d. she didn’t mention Koplik’s spots in the mouth or raised lesions.

e. the raised red rash usually begins on the trunk and spreads from there.

A child comes into your clinic with impetigo. The lab cultures a sample for further analysis. If the sample is S. aureus, which lab results would you expect?

a. Gram-positive cocci in clusters, catalase and coagulase positive

b. Gram-negative diplococci, catalase positive, and coagulase negative

c. Gram-positive cocci in clusters, catalase negative, and coagulase positive

d. Gram-positive cocci in chains, catalase positive, and coagulase negative

e. Gram-positive cocci in chains, catalase negative, and coagulase positive

A 65-year-old patient calls the nursing hotline to ask about some painful blisters arranged in a band on one side of his waist. After hearing about the lesions, you ask him if he had chickenpox as a child. This is because you feel you are hearing about a case of:

a. candidiasis.

b. measles.

c. herpes.

d. shingles.

e. rubella.

Which lesion/rash is mismatched with the disease?

a. Ulcer – inflammatory acne

b. Honey-colored crusted lesion – impetigo

c. Papule rash – wart

d. Maculopapular rash – measles

e. Vesicular rash – chickenpox

Concept Mapping:

Using the following terms, create a concept map to organize and review microbial diseases of the eyes.

- Acanthamoeba

- Adenoviruses

- Aspergillus

- Candida

- Chlamydia trachomatis

- Flies, fomites, fingers

- Fusarium

- Haemophilus influenzae

- Herpes simplex 1 virus

- Keratitis

- Moraxella

- River blindness

- Scarring of eyelid

- Staphylococcus species

- Streptococcus species

- Turning of lashes and further scarring

Which of the following is associated with chronic neuralgia?

a. Herpes simplex 1 virus

b. Streptococcus pyogenes

c, Measles virus

d. Varicella-zoster virus

e. Papilloma virus

Choose the false statement about HSV-1:

a. Viruses may be transmitted via wrestling mats.

b. Viruses may be transmitted via contact with lesions.

c. Viruses may be transmitted via the saliva of others with the virus.

d. Viruses may reactivate under stress-inducing conditions.

e. Viruses can be easily cured with common antivirals.

Which genus is primarily associated with acne?

a. Staphylococcus

b. Propionibacterium

c. Clostridium

d. Streptococcus

e. Pseudomonas

All of the following are commonly associated with Streptococcus pyogenes EXCEPT:

a. impetigo.

b. cellulitis.

c. scalded skin syndrome.

d. necrotizing fasciitis.

e. strep throat.

Which of the following is not a virulence factor of P. aeruginosa?

a. Protein A

b, Exotoxins

c. Enzymes that damage host tissues

d. Endotoxins

e. Factors that enhance biofilm formation

Select ALL the true statements about dermatophytes:

a. They are a group of bacteria that cause cutaneous infections.

b. They may be treated with antifungals without knowing the exact causative agent.

c. They are easily treated with antibiotics.

d. They are commonly acquired from the soil, environment, or animals.

e. They produce enzymes that digest keratin found in hair, nails, and skin.

Select the false statement about cutaneous candidiasis:

a. The most common causative species is Candida albicans.

b. Candida albicans can be part of normal microbiota.

c. Usage of antibiotics can increase the chance of cutaneous candidiasis.

d. Changes in pH can permit overgrowth.

e. The causative agents are naturally found as mold filaments.

Which of the following is/are features of endotoxic shock? Select all that apply.

a. Fever

b. Confusion

c. Hypertension

d. Bradycardia

e. Decreased respiratory rate

f. Achiness

A patient is admitted who is complaining of headache, disorientation, and numbness in his left arm. He was bitten by a raccoon two days before. The FIRST step taken to help this patient would be

a. retrieving and testing the raccoon’s brain tissues for the rabies virus.

b. collecting a CSF sample from the patient.

c. performing a tissue biopsy on the patient to look for Negri bodies.

d. administering an anti-rabies vaccine as well as anti-rabies antibodies.

An HIV/AIDS patient is presenting with flulike symptoms, headache, fever, and disorientation. The MOST important piece of information a nurse must obtain for the patient is his or her

a. travel history, in and outside the United States.

b. diet for the last 3 days.

c. exposure to lakes or streams.

d. exposure to bats.

Which of the following symptoms would be most informative in terms of ruling out a prion disease as a differential diagnosis?

a. Nuchal rigidity

b. Hallucinations

c. Fatigue

d. Headache

Viral meningitis is more common than other forms of meningitis because

a. these infectious agents are all intracellular, evading the immune system.

b. there are more types of viruses than bacteria because they evolve more quickly.

c. the small size of viruses makes them able to pass more easily through the blood–brain barrier.

d. viruses are spread person to person more easily than bacteria, fungi, or protozoans.

A patient’s lab data report has come back with a positive ELISA for pneumococcal C polysaccharide from CSF samples. The MOST appropriate next step for a health professional to recommend is to

a. culture from the CSF sample to test for antibiotic resistance.

b. administer tetracycline.

c. administer cephalosporin.

d. wait for RT-PCR confirmation before antibiotic treatment.

A patient under one year old is vomiting, drowsy, floppy (flaccid), and unresponsive. Both infant botulism and infant meningitis caused by other bacteria are suspected. Which piece of information would best help narrow down the possible diagnosis?

a. The child has spent almost no time outside the home.

b. The child is being breast-fed.

c. The child was born one month ago.

d. The child has a very high fever.

CSF glucose levels are often assessed to differentiate between bacterial and viral meningitis. This is because

a. bacteria cells use glucose and lower the overall concentration in the CSF.

b. viral meningitis causes inflammation that blocks glucose transport into the CSF.

c. viral infection of the meninges causes cell lysis, releasing glucose into the CSF.

d. None of the above.